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Nov 17, 2002
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#41
HERESY said:
If you are seeking to do the will of God what use is free will?
Yes. But it isn't as if one chooses to do the will of God and then is forcefully locked into that position. You were saying that at some point it becomes impossible for one to sin, but I don't think this is true. I think one simply matures and chooses not to sin. On the other hand, at no point can God ever sin. And that is regardless of God's holiness. He cannot sin because it is not possible for God to go against Himself. Now, out of pure association with God's holiness, we develop Godly qualities and choose not to sin, but that is quite different than not having the capacity to sin at all.
 

HERESY

THE HIDDEN HAND...
Apr 25, 2002
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#42
Yes. But it isn't as if one chooses to do the will of God and then is forcefully locked into that position. You were saying that at some point it becomes impossible for one to sin, but I don't think this is true.
The bible teaches that when we receive our glorified bodies we will not sin because sin will not exist. We will be perfect and in the image of God. It also teaches to STOP sinning.

I think one simply matures and chooses not to sin.
see above. That is true while we are in flesh bodies.

On the other hand, at no point can God ever sin. And that is regardless of God's holiness. He cannot sin because it is not possible for God to against Himself.
Incorrect. Going against himself is also going against his holiness so it is not a matter of "regardless." Maybe you don't have the same concept of Holy as I do.

Now, out of pure association with God's holiness, we develop Godly qualities and choose not to sin, but that is quite different than not having the capacity to sin at all.
And it is quite different than what you initially asked, which is "Are you saying that we can reach a point where it is logically impossible for us to sin?"
There WILL be a point where you are incapable of sinning. There IS a point you can attain here that prohibits you from continuing to sin or live in sin.
 
Aug 6, 2006
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#43
HERESY said:
Sure, I'll post something that is even more intimate than "I am God".

In John 8:12-59 you see a discussion between Yeshi, and the pharisees. In verse 58 he makes a claim, and was almost stoned afterwards. Read it and post that claim here.



After you read the above I'll give you more. Focus on that right now.



God cannot be one with anybody as long as the person is not one with God.



Please read this:

http://www.forananswer.org/Mark/Mk10_18.htm
Okay, this is what the quote says..

"Most truly I say to you, Before Abraham came into existence,
I am
"

I agree that one can infer from this that Jesus must of lived during the time of Abraham, or that he was there before Abraham, but definitely not as conclusive as claiming to be God incarnate. I am(Ego eimi) isn't a direct translation of Yahweh, therefore this is nothing more than indirect evidence that Jesus was some how special, not that he was God imo. He was in the Prophecy right? And the word was always with God so there are other ways to interpret that. And If he were God, why did he run when they were going to stone him? In John 10:30-36 he makes similar ambiguous claims, then tries to explain them away by accusing them of doing the same thing, or referring to the fact that God called all of the sons of Israel gods. I still fail to see where Jesus claims to be God himself. One question that I've always found confusing.. If Jesus is God and they are one, then why is it important to get to God through Jesus? I mean if they are the same person, can't you go directly to God, and in effect still recognize Jesus, since in heaven they are one? The only reason Jesus was ever separate was because he came to earth right? So now how do we pray? In the name of Yahweh or in the name of Yeshua? Confusing as hell if you ask me. I'm reading the explanation in the link you've provided now..
 
Mar 12, 2005
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#44
Parkboyz said:
If Jesus is God and they are one, then why is it important to get to God through Jesus?
That is the Way, the Truth and the Light John 4:16, the Will of the Father is the will of the son. Understand the Hebrew Word Echad, meaning ONE, but not in numerical value, well here's a link that'll help you out. ECHAD
I still fail to see where Jesus claims to be God himself.
Isaiah 9:6, I use this all the time. Jesus has the Power to Forgive sins, which only Yahweh can, Jesus has the power to resurrect the Dead which he did in the Field of Soldiers with Elijah, and only God can do that, He Died and Rose again from the dead. A testament to his Deity, if I can find my note book, I can give you old testament scripture as well.
The only reason Jesus was ever separate was because he came to earth right?
Once you understand the Concept of the Trinity and Echad, you will understand. You mean Separate by distinct?
So now who do we pray?
Luke Chapter 11
In the name of Yahweh or in the name of Yeshua?
To the Father, but By Yeshua's Name. HaShem Aviah, HaShem Yeshua, HaShem Ruach Hakodesh
 

HERESY

THE HIDDEN HAND...
Apr 25, 2002
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#45
Listen, when I make the suggestion that you read something I don't mean to read it, google something in opposition and come back and reply. What I mean is to read it, meditate on it, research it, and allow God to lead you. You don't know anything about the greek language, I am sorry, but that is the simple fact and it is based on our past convo's, so don't expect me to believe you simply "knew" about Ego eimi. Read this and don't play games any more:

http://www.tektonics.org/jesusclaims/iamwhatiam.html

I am(Ego eimi) isn't a direct translation of Yahweh, therefore this is nothing more than indirect evidence that Jesus was some how special, not that he was God imo.
see above.

He was in the Prophecy right? And the word was always with God so there are other ways to interpret that.
How many different ways can you interpret "AND THE WORD WAS GOD"?

And If he were God, why did he run when they were going to stone him?
Who said he ran away? You sound like the scoffers and mockers at the cross, "If you are God come down and save yourself". What did you want him to do? Zap them into the phantom zone or something?

In John 10:30-36 he makes similar ambiguous claims, then tries to explain them away by accusing them of doing the same thing, or referring to the fact that God called all of the sons of Israel gods.
This is more misunderstanding on your part. NOWHERE in the passages you listed does he accuse them of doing what they accused him of, and nowhere in the passage does it make a reference to all the sons of Israel being Gods son. Please READ what you post before you actually post it. Here I'll even post part of a verse so you can understand what I am saying:

10:35. If he called them gods to whom the word of God was spoken

How/why do you assume this is talking about all of the sons of Israel and that they are being called gods?

I still fail to see where Jesus claims to be God himself.
You fail to understand because you choose to not understand.

One question that I've always found confusing.. If Jesus is God and they are one, then why is it important to get to God through Jesus?
Do you realize what the biblical concept of God is? Do you understand who he is and what he requires as a payment/attonement for iniquity?

I mean if they are the same person, can't you go directly to God, and in affect still recognize Jesus, since in heaven they are one again?
No. In order to get to THE FATHER you must go through him.

The only reason Jesus was ever separate was because he came to earth right?
Do you mean physicaly seperate?

So now who do we pray? In the name of Yahweh or in the name of Yeshua? Confusing as hell if you ask me.
What did he say to do? Did he say to pray in the name of YHWH or Yeshua?
 
Aug 6, 2006
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#46
"That is the Way, the Truth and the Light John 4:16, the Will of the Father is the will of the son. Understand the Hebrew Word Echad, meaning ONE, but not in numerical value, well here's a link that'll help you out. ECHAD"

Okay, read part of that article and I have a general understanding on the meaning, but doesn't this contradict the Jesus is God incarnate hypothesis? If he doesn't mean this in a numerical sense, but in that Jesus shares God's divine nature and will, then this alludes to the fact that he is the Son of God, but not God himself correct? Or am I still missing something?

"Isaiah 9:6, I use this all the time. Jesus has the Power to Forgive sins, which only Yahweh can, Jesus has the power to resurrect the Dead which he did in the Field of Soldiers with Elijah, and only God can do that, He Died and Rose again from the dead. A testament to his Deity, if I can find my note book, I can give you old testament scripture as well."

^God is omnipotent, therefore he should be able to grant these powers unto who'm ever he chooses. Or is this not true?

"Once you understand the Concept of the Trinity and Echad, you will understand. You mean Separate by distinct?"

I understand the explanations for them, just still don't see how to take them literally, or if as a believer, are you supposed to take it literally?

"Luke Chapter 11"

I'm familiar with this prayer and it affirms my current belief that one should pray in the name of the Father and not the Son. That's exactly what Luke 11 says, which was instructed by Yeshua himself..

"To the Father, but By Yeshua's Name. HaShem Aviah, HaShem Yeshua, HaShem Ruach Hakodesh"

Umm, okay, you were with me, then lost me again. I didn't see anything about Jesus in that prayer that you provided me. Thanx for trying to help my understanding though.. Still a bit confusing..
 
Nov 17, 2002
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#47
HERESY said:
The bible teaches that when we receive our glorified bodies we will not sin because sin will not exist. We will be perfect and in the image of God. It also teaches to STOP sinning.
Sin will not exist because it is no longer chosen, or because it is no longer an option?

What difference, if any, is there between Adam & Eve's bodies (pre-sin), and the glorified bodies we shall receive?


HERESY said:
see above. That is true while we are in flesh bodies.
Ok.


HERESY said:
Incorrect. Going against himself is also going against his holiness so it is not a matter of "regardless." Maybe you don't have the same concept of Holy as I do.
Maybe I don't, but including the attribute of holiness seems unnecessarily tacked on. Could one not equally say, "Going against Himself is also going against His love," since God is love? But then, what does love have to do with the logic that God cannot go against Himself? Do you see what I am saying? I am not denying that God's self and God's holiness are one and the same. I am just saying that we can understand the logical impossibility of God's sinning without regards to attributes like holiness or love or sovereignty or omniscience or etc.


HERESY said:
And it is quite different than what you initially asked, which is "Are you saying that we can reach a point where it is logically impossible for us to sin?"
There WILL be a point where you are incapable of sinning. There IS a point you can attain here that prohibits you from continuing to sin or live in sin.
I have a similar understanding in Vedanta. It is said that once one comes to God's kingdom, he will never again fall down. But whether this is a question of being incapable of sinning or simply choosing not to sin is still up in the air. I think that if it is true that we become incapable of sinning, then perhaps that is because the option (temptation) is not there before us. Though the problem with this, as I see it, is why was the option ever there to begin with? So I take it to mean that we always have the capacity to sin, but once we come to God's kingdom, we are fixed up in (and by) our own choice to lovingly serve God; since, of course, love requires freely willing entities.
 
Aug 6, 2006
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#48
Listen, when I make the suggestion that you read something I don't mean to read it, google something in opposition and come back and reply. What I mean is to read it, meditate on it, research it, and allow God to lead you. You don't know anything about the greek language, I am sorry, but that is the simple fact and it is based on our past convo's, so don't expect me to believe you simply "knew" about Ego eimi. Read this and don't play games any more:

http://www.tektonics.org/jesusclaims/iamwhatiam.html



see above.


You definitely under estimate people's ability to understand english heresy, I don't need to meditate on two or three sentences/fragments that are written in plain English, or research any of the words. If all Christians are required to learn Greek and Hebrew, then what's the point? And stop letting your arrogance get to you, I never once claimed that I was able to even speak a sentence in Greek, but I researched the word in its context and I can tell you for 100% sure that "Ego eimi" does not translate to a name for "the God", or "a god".

You fail to understand because you choose to not understand.

Or maybe because I'm not creative enough to imagine what you guys imagine. You people come up with the most beautiful explanations that sound as if they make sense, but when one continues to ask questions they just don't.



How many different ways can you interpret "AND THE WORD WAS GOD"?


Who ever said that the word = Jesus? Why can't the word simply be God's will or command? More "indirect" evidence.. Unless I'm wrong and Jesus claimed to be the word also.. I've been under the impression that Christians assume this to reinforce their faith.

Do you realize what the biblical concept of God is? Do you understand who he is and what he requires as a payment/attonement for iniquity?

Yes, but the concept of God in the old testament is obviously perceived differently than the God of the New.. This is a question you could of asked me at age 10, I've always been perfectly aware with the complete story of Christ and his justification for being here. Don't see the relevance to Jesus' divinity though. God needed a sacrificial lamb and begot(created/gave life to) a son..


Do you mean physicaly seperate?


Yes.. I mean, heaven wasn't vacant in the time that Jesus was on earth was it? Jesus actually talked to God personally and I know that he wasn't talking to himself..

What did he say to do? Did he say to pray in the name of YHWH or Yeshua?


From what Iv'e read from Luke 11 it says to pray in the name of the Father..
 
Mar 12, 2005
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#49
ParkBoyz said:
If all Christians are required to learn Greek and Hebrew, then what's the point?
Does it make sense, to not understand the original Text/tongue of a Book? It's like me arguing with a Muslim or Taoist and then say, if I have to learn Arabic or Mandarin what's the Point.

Yes, but the concept of God in the old testament is obviously perceived differently than the God of the New
I'm going to leave the question pertaining to :h: man alone. Are you Serious? Just because God was looked upon as a God full of Revenge and Judgment, and then later come as a peaceful God in the New Testament Doesn't mean he's changed. He's the Same, the Same Fate all rejecters, non-believers, and sinners will get is the same fate as those of Sodom and Gomorrah. Should I go on, and on about the Similarities of both OT and NT God?
 
Aug 6, 2006
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#50

Does it make sense, to not understand the original Text/tongue of a Book? It's like me arguing with a Muslim or Taoist and then say, if I have to learn Arabic or Mandarin what's the Point.


I believe that God should protect his word if he wants it to get across.. Certain people are simply incapable of learning new languages, either way it takes years, and a lot of people will die before they complete the process.. That shouldn't be mandatory, and Christians actually don't put emphasis on this like Muslims do..

I'm going to leave the question pertaining to :h: man alone. Are you Serious? Just because God was looked upon as a God full of Revenge and Judgment, and then later come as a peaceful God in the New Testament Doesn't mean he's changed. He's the Same, the Same Fate all rejecters, non-believers, and sinners will get is the same fate as those of Sodom and Gomorrah. Should I go on, and on about the Similarities of both OT and NT God?

Wow, you're really blowing up what I said. What I mean basically is that the trinity situation wasn't even a factor in the OT, not mentioned once. Simply one God. In the NT, we have a lot of peculiar verses indicating the possibility of 3 Gods in one. This is a new concept of God as far as I'm concerned, but Yahweh's will never changed..
 
Mar 12, 2005
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#51
Everyone will always be Inadequate, and no will is ever bound to fully understand or grasps the full extent of anything, mentally speaking. But Spiritually speaking, there's a difference, but it's something believers can comprehend, and the lost or un-believing cannot. Like you said it's probably something we can see and you cannot, so I'll leave it at that Brotha man.
 
Aug 6, 2006
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#52
STOCKTONE said:
Everyone will always be Inadequate, and no will is ever bound to fully understand or grasps the full extent of anything, mentally speaking. But Spiritually speaking, there's a difference, but it's something believers can comprehend, and the lost or un-believing cannot. Like you said it's probably something we can see and you cannot, so I'll leave it at that Brotha man.
I don't know, only time will tell I guess. Thanx for the responses peeps! And apologies to the thread starter for changing the subject, got ahead of myself.
 

HERESY

THE HIDDEN HAND...
Apr 25, 2002
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#53
Sin will not exist because it is no longer chosen, or because it is no longer an option?
Later on it will no longer be an option.

What difference, if any, is there between Adam & Eve's bodies (pre-sin), and the glorified bodies we shall receive?
This is up for debate with some people saying no difference and others saying a big difference. Personally, I believe we will have something that is incorruptible, and that view is supported by the bible (and it is the type of body Yeshi had when he came from the dead.)

Maybe I don't, but including the attribute of holiness seems unnecessarily tacked on. Could one not equally say, "Going against Himself is also going against His love," since God is love?
Yes, one could say that, but holiness is not a single attribute like love. Holiness is a way, holiness is what God is comprised of. I'm not saying God is not comprised of love, but what I am saying is love is a part of Gods holiness. Do you understand what I am saying?

But then, what does love have to do with the logic that God cannot go against Himself? Do you see what I am saying?
Love has a minumum role here (when it goes to God going against himself.)

I am not denying that God's self and God's holiness are one and the same. I am just saying that we can understand the logical impossibility of God's sinning without regards to attributes like holiness or love or sovereignty or omniscience or etc.
I am not saying that you can't understand it. What I am saying is that you should grasp these things in order to have a better understanding.

I have a similar understanding in Vedanta. It is said that once one comes to God's kingdom, he will never again fall down. But whether this is a question of being incapable of sinning or simply choosing not to sin is still up in the air. I think that if it is true that we become incapable of sinning, then perhaps that is because the option (temptation) is not there before us. Though the problem with this, as I see it, is why was the option ever there to begin with? So I take it to mean that we always have the capacity to sin, but once we come to God's kingdom, we are fixed up in (and by) our own choice to lovingly serve God; since, of course, love requires freely willing entities.
You got it.
:cool:
 

HERESY

THE HIDDEN HAND...
Apr 25, 2002
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#54
You definitely under estimate people's ability to understand english heresy, I don't need to meditate on two or three sentences/fragments that are written in plain English, or research any of the words.
You should, if not you'll constantly walk in circles, ask the same thingsover and over, and don't grow. The bible itself says to study and show yourself approved, and to meditate on the scirptures, but if you want to be a google scholar and paste whatever it is you come across go right ahead. I will have no problem knocking it down, trampling it, and painting a lovely picture of your mental prowess.

If all Christians are required to learn Greek and Hebrew, then what's the point?
They SHOULD learn it. That is what the original text were written in, and due to people NOT knowing the context/meaning of the original texts, things have been misconstrued and people have come up with claims of the bible contradicting itself. Why you do not grasp the FACT that the meaning of words have changed over time and that some of the words written do NOT have the literal meaning is beyond me. Acts 5:30 and Acts 10:39 is a PRIME example of why people SHOULD learn the languages.

And stop letting your arrogance get to you,
I'm not letting arrogance get to me. I simply have a very low tolerance when it comes to certain people and when it comes to certain topics. You simply happen to be a person I have a low tolerance for and this is a topic where I will not condone foolishnes. Do not confuse being sharp and to the point with being arrogant. As long as I am not making personal attacks on you or uplifting and edifying myself you have no claim.

I never once claimed that I was able to even speak a sentence in Greek, but I researched the word in its context and I can tell you for 100% sure that "Ego eimi" does not translate to a name for "the God", or "a god".
You researched the word and its context and can tell me you are 100% sure of the meaning. Your research consisted of google, it hasn't even been 24 hours since you were first given the information, and you have no knowldge of the original languages. Since these are FACTS, how do you expect for anyone to believe you have done any credible research or that you are 100% sure? Do you see the idiocy in all of this?

Or maybe because I'm not creative enough to imagine what you guys imagine. You people come up with the most beautiful explanation that sound as if they make sense, but when one continues to ask questions they just don't.
No, it is not because you are not creative, because I gave you links explaining these things, and the information is as clear as day. What I am telling you is that your lack of knowledge, as it relates to the bible, is partially due to you not understanding HOW the scriptures are written and HOW they should be read. You can ask questions all you want, but when someone gives you a cogent argument and valid info you google it, type some witty response, and start to point the finger when people DON'T have a high tolerence for bs.

Who ever said the the word = Jesus? Why can't the word simply be God's will or command? More "indirect" evidence.. Unless I'm wrong and Jesus claimed to be the word also.. I've been under the impression that Christians assume this to reinforce their faith.
First of all, stop living under the impression that all "christians" believe the same thing, and focus more on different sects dogma and doctrine. This way, you won't be correct for using generalizations. Make sure you read the words in bold.

John 1.In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2. The same was in the beginning with God.

3. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

4. In him was life; and the life was the light of men.

5. And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

6. There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.

7. The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe.

8. He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light.

9. That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.

10. He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.

11. He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

12. But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:

13. Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

14. And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

15. John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me.

16. And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace.


Yes, but the concept of God in the old testament is obviously perceived differently than the God of the New.. This is a question you couldn't of asked me at age 10, I've always been perfectly aware with the complete story of Christ and his justification for being here. Don't see the relevance to Jesus' divinity though. God needed a sacrificial lamb and begot(created/gave life to) a son
See above. You do not understand the divinity because you do not understand what you are talking about. If you understand his justification of being here you would understand the relevancy of being divine. If you understood the concepts of messiah you would understand the relevency of being divine.

Yes.. I mean, heaven wasn't vacant in the time the Jesus was on earth was it? Jesus actually talked to God personally and I know that he wasn't talking to himself..
No, heaven was not vacant. The reason I asked about being seperate is so everyone here would have a clear understand of what you mean by seperate. The oneness doctrine believes that "GOD" occupies different roles at different times, and this is why I asked you to define seperate.

From what I read from Luke 11 it says to pray in the name of the Father..
So why is it "confusing as hell" to you?
 
Aug 6, 2006
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#55
You should, if not you'll constantly walk in circles, ask the same thingsover and over, and don't grow. The bible itself says to study and show yourself approved, and to meditate on the scirptures, but if you want to be a google scholar and paste whatever it is you come across go right ahead. I will have no problem knocking it down, trampling it, and painting a lovely picture of your mental prowess.


You're still avoiding the fact that it is written in plain, understandable English(thank God for the NIV).. What is there to meditate on when you have over 21 years of experience in the English language, including everything that goes along with it? And honestly, you haven't trampled over or knocked down anything as of yet, you're simply displaying your arrogance again.

They SHOULD learn it. That is what the original text were written in, and due to people NOT knowing the context/meaning of the original texts, things have been misconstrued and people have come up with claims of the bible contradicting itself. Why you do not grasp the FACT that the meaning of words have changed over time and that some of the words written do NOT have the literal meaning is beyond me. Acts 5:30 and Acts 10:39 is a PRIME example of why people SHOULD learn the languages.


You paint a deceptively logical picture my friend. Yet you fail to realize some how that learning these languages amounts to nothing when we can't even trace down all of the original scriptures. We have bits and pieces. And even if we did, we still have the issue that some people just aren't that good with linguistics. Not going to go against those verses but you must admit that there's a problem in that department.




I'm not letting arrogance get to me. I simply have a very low tolerance when it comes to certain people and when it comes to certain topics. You simply happen to be a person I have a low tolerance for and this is a topic where I will not condone foolishnes. Do not confuse being sharp and to the point with being arrogant. As long as I am not making personal attacks on you or uplifting and edifying myself you have no claim.


All of that seems like personal issues and has nothing to do with me. I still see/saw that as arrogance though.. The fact that you can underestimate a person's ability to understand English, no matter how well he communicates it(which are two different things), qualifies as arrogance on your part imo.

You researched the word and its context and can tell me you are 100% sure of the meaning. Your research consisted of google, it hasn't even been 24 hours since you were first given the information, and you have no knowldge of the original languages. Since these are FACTS, how do you expect for anyone to believe you have done any credible research or that you are 100% sure? Do you see the idiocy in all of this?


The fact still stands that you cannot refute my claim, and that this word that I google searched indeed has nothing to do with the nature of God, and is just as I described, a word. Instead, you use the dismissive approach giving a red herring type argument, furthermore reinforcing your obvious degree of arrogance, lol, so obvious that it's kind of funny now.


No, it is not because you are not creative, because I gave you links explaining these things, and the information is as clear as day. What I am telling you is that your lack of knowledge, as it relates to the bible, is partially due to you not understanding HOW the scriptures are written and HOW they should be read. You can ask questions all you want, but when someone gives you a cogent argument and valid info you google it, type some witty response, and start to point the finger when people DON'T have a high tolerence for bs.


Firstly, I've read this information.. If you haven't noticed, the internet is publicly available to everyone.. I've read very adverse opinions on these topics from all angels. Opinions coming from scholars a lot more learned than you are so it is only right for me to have an open mind and to not simply except every google link that you throw at me. This in fact would make you a hypocrite, because you're doing the very same thing you accuse me of. I ask you a difficult question that you obviously have not the answer to, so you google up the question and throw links in my face like I've never read before and you're introducing me to fire. And again, your threshold of tolerance is a personal issue and doesn't concern me..

First of all, stop living under the impression that all "christians" believe the same thing, and focus more on different sects dogma and doctrine. This way, you won't be correct for using generalizations. Make sure you read the words in bold.

John 1.In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

2. The same was in the beginning with God.

3. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.

4. In him was life; and the life was the light of men.

5. And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

6. There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.

7. The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all men through him might believe.

8. He was not that Light, but was sent to bear witness of that Light.

9. That was the true Light, which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.

10. He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.

11. He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

12. But as many as received him, to them gave he power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his name:

13. Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

14. And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

15. John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me.

16. And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace.




Okay, let me not generalize and criticize all Christians, but only the ones who claim Jesus to be God incarnate.. And I don't recall me asking you for John's opinion on Jesus and his origins, but to provide a quote from Jesus stating that he was God, or "the word".. Another red herring eh?

See above. You do not understand the divinity because you do not understand what you are talking about. If you understand his justification of being here you would understand the relevancy of being divine. If you understood the concepts of messiah you would understand the relevency of being divine.


I've already explained to you that I do understand his justification for being here, yet it doesn't have anything to do with "God" coming to earth.. His Son did.. This is one of those arguments that you can throw on anybody if they disagree with you. "awe, you don't understand it, that's why you can't grasp the concept" type shit.. That won't work...

No, heaven was not vacant. The reason I asked about being seperate is so everyone here would have a clear understand of what you mean by seperate. The oneness doctrine believes that "GOD" occupies different roles at different times, and this is why I asked you to define seperate.


And you expect any sensible person to believe this logic? This is borderline schizophrenia, I mean Jesus prayed to God and talked to him daily. On the cross, some of Jesus' last words were "My Lord, why hast thou forsaken me".. If he was talking to himself then that just seems loony to me. Questioning your self? You must have some type of divine understanding in that you can go outside of faith, and try and explain this logically. Kudos to you sir..

So why is it "confusing as hell" to you?

I don't know, probably because we have millions of Christians world wide praying in the name of Jesus Christ every single day..
 
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#56
And I don't recall me asking you for John's opinion on Jesus and his origins, but to provide a quote from Jesus stating that he was God, or "the word"..
On what basis do you discriminate one part of the Bible from another? If John speaks faulty then how do know Jesus doesn't? Or, how do you know that those were really even Jesus words? Jesus didn't write down the Bible. Therefore you should either accept that the Bible is authoritive, or you should reject it.
 

HERESY

THE HIDDEN HAND...
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#57
n9newunsixx5150 said:
On what basis do you discriminate one part of the Bible from another? If John speaks faulty then how do know Jesus doesn't? Or, how do you know that those were really even Jesus words? Jesus didn't write down the Bible. Therefore you should either accept that the Bible is authoritive, or you should reject it.
Exactly, and thats what several people on this board fail to understand (k-nine included.)
 

HERESY

THE HIDDEN HAND...
Apr 25, 2002
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#58
You're still avoiding the fact that it is written in plain, understandable English(thank God for the NIV).
No, I am not forgetting the fact that the words are written in plain and understandable english. What YOU are failing to grasp, for whatever reason known only to yourself, is that even when written in plain, understandable english, that the literal writting of the words STILL don't have the meaning they are supposed. Use an NIV and look up the verses I gave in Acts. Here I'll look up one for you.

Acts 5:30 The God of our fathers raised Jesus from the dead—whom you had killed by hanging him on a tree.
Now, before you go any further, before you post any far-fetched response or continue to side step questions like the majority of people who post in this forum you need to answer the following questions. Is the verse written in plain and understandable english, and if it is, does that mean jesus was hung on a tree? Could someone read that verse and come to believe that Jesus was lynched (killing by hanging on or from a tree)?

What is there to meditate on when you have over 21 years of experience in the English language, including everything that goes along with it? And honestly, you haven't trampled over or knocked down anything as of yet, you're simply displaying your arrogance again.
See above, and I have demolished and trampled most of your position. Just a few more posts and you'll be fully demolished. Go back and look at the statements you made and questions that were asked based on those statements. You'll see that you FAILED to answer them or gave some warped answer that even you yourself don't believe. Here, I'll give you an example.

In John 10:30-36 he makes similar ambiguous claims, then tries to explain them away by accusing them of doing the same thing, or referring to the fact that God called all of the sons of Israel gods.
Those are your words. Here was my response to your words:

This is more misunderstanding on your part. NOWHERE in the passages you listed does he accuse them of doing what they accused him of, and nowhere in the passage does it make a reference to all the sons of Israel being Gods son. Please READ what you post before you actually post it. Here I'll even post part of a verse so you can understand what I am saying:

10:35. If he called them gods to whom the word of God was spoken

How/why do you assume this is talking about all of the sons of Israel and that they are being called gods?
Your response to that? Crickets...

You paint a deceptively logical picture my friend. Yet you fail to realize some how that learning these languages amounts to nothing when we can't even trace down all of the original scriptures. We have bits and pieces. And even if we did, we still have the issue that some people just aren't that good with linguistics. Not going to go against those verses but you must admit that there's a problem in that department.
This is a cop out and has NOTHING to do with what I am saying. You fail to realize that we are going on WHAT WE HAVE and not WHAT IS LOST, and even if a gazillion scriptures are lost, the ones we have still need to be read and translated. People still need to analyze the writing style of the work, study the political climate at the time teh writings were written etc. Also, you don't have "bits and pieces" because some of the writings ARE complete, so no I will not admit that there is a problem in that department, and by you not going up against those verses you sink your entire argument and rationalization that studies pertaining to the original languages are not needed.

All of that seems like personal issues and has nothing to do with me. I still see/saw that as arrogance though.. The fact that you can underestimate a person's ability to understand English, no matter how well he communicates it(which are two different things), qualifies as arrogance on your part imo.
It isn't an "issue" my friend. It is simply a low tolerence for bs, and a low tolerence for people who are somewhat intelligent but faithfully post bs. The fact is, I am underestimating a persons ability to understand english because YOU did it to Stockton, and the majority of your argument is "it is written in english therefor it is easily understood." I gave you two verses that were clearly written in english, yet you failed to address those verses. If you cannot address those verses you have no leg to stand on.

The fact still stands that you cannot refute my claim, and that this word that I google searched indeed has nothing to do with the nature of God, and is just as I described, a word. Instead, you use the dismissive approach giving a red herring type argument, furthermore reinforcing your obvious degree of arrogance, lol, so obvious that it's kind of funny now.
Why do I need to refute your claim when I posted a link with credible info that actually refutes your claim? See, you simply don't get it. If you had the ability to explain what the word actually means, its OT equivilent etc, I'd have a reason to actually entertain you. However, you don't know, and you'll simply rehash something that someone else wrote without ANY knowledge regarding its validity. Again, READ THE LINKS I provided and one of them has a very good essay on the subject at the bottom of its page.

Here it is in case you are too lazy to click the previous link to find this link.
http://www.geocities.com/adaniels700/gospeltruths.html?1067540543700

Son, no one has given you a red herring argument, I was NOT the one who introduced "No one is good but God" to this topic, and it is only logical that the divine nature of Jesus be introduced in this topic since he is the one who made the statements in question and due to the belief held by some that he was implying that he was not "god." Where is the red-herring?
I have answered the original poster, and he and I basically agree on the original question. Have you answered the original question? :dead:

Firstly, I've read this information..
Sure you have.

If you haven't noticed, the internet is publicly available to everyone.. I've read very adverse opinions on these topics from all angels.
Yet you provide no critical response to the link I posted and don't even provide a logical reason as to why you say the words don't have a certain meaning.

Opinions coming from scholars a lot more learned than you are so it is only right for me to have an open mind and to not simply except every google link that you throw at me.
Yet you have provided us with no info on these scholars, have provided us with no links to anything they have written, and as I have mentioned before, have yet to actually refute what I have posted. The only thing you have said is "thats not what it means", and if you are thinking that I should be insulted by your claim that you have read or heard opinions from scholars who are more learned than myself, I have two things to tell you.

1. I am more learned than YOU. This is a FACT, it CANNOT be argued, and it is proven EVERYTIME you and I post in threads such as this one. You are hyping the next man up but compare the two of us and see how things pan out. :dead:

2. Put me in contact with these scholars because I love learning. [email protected] or [email protected]

This in fact would make you a hypocrite, because you're doing the very same thing you accuse me of. I ask you a difficult question that you obviously have not the answer to, so you google up the question and throw links in my face like I've never read before and you're introducing me to fire. And again, your threshold of tolerance is a personal issue and doesn't concern me..
No, it isn't being a hypocrite. If I give you something (a link for example) rest assured that it has either been in my favorites folder for some time, or I have actually downloaded it to my offline content folder, or I have a pdf book pertaining to the topic. If I respond a couple of days later or a week later and give you something, that means I have recently come acrossed it, and researched it (and yes, research DOES include going to the local library or going through my own collection.) But when I do present something that is straight from my dome and no link provided what do you do? You side step it and avoid it like the plague, junior. See, people like you simply can't be satisfied. I give you info coming from me and you avoid it, and I give you info coming from someone else and you avoid it. What is the use of giving you anything?

Okay, let me not generalize and criticize all Christians, but only the ones who claim Jesus to be God incarnate..
:shaking my head in disbelief::ermm:

And I don't recall me asking you for John's opinion on Jesus and his origins, but to provide a quote from Jesus stating that he was God, or "the word".. Another red herring eh?
You obviously don't remember what you typed. First of all, You asked for Jesus claiming to be God, I gave you something better, but due to your ignorance, you don't understand it and say "it doesn't mean that", but provide no evidence to back your claim. Second of all, you didn't ask for anything about jesus stating he is "the word", and here is your original statement:

Who ever said the the word = Jesus? Why can't the word simply be God's will or command? More "indirect" evidence.. Unless I'm wrong and Jesus claimed to be the word also.. I've been under the impression that Christians assume this to reinforce their faith.
LMAO! Red-herring? No, more like I'm paying attention and simply responding to what is presented. You ask "who ever said the the word = Jesus?" I give you an example in the bible where it supports the belief, and you blab on and on about how you didn't ask for Johns opinion! ROFL!

I've already explained to you that I do understand his justification for being here, yet it doesn't have anything to do with "God" coming to earth.. His Son did.. This is one of those arguments that you can throw on anybody if they disagree with you. "awe, you don't understand it, that's why you can't grasp the concept" type shit.. That won't work...
Again, you do not understand the divinity because you do not understand what you are talking about. If you understand his justification of being here you would understand the relevancy of being divine. If you understood the concepts of messiah you would understand the relevency of being divine. If you understood these things you would not have to...scratch that. Explain what the messi...nope scratch that also. You'll simply avoid it.

And you expect any sensible person to believe this logic? This is borderline schizophrenia, I mean Jesus prayed to God and talked to him daily. On the cross, some of Jesus' last words were "My Lord, why hast thou forsaken me".. If he was talking to himself then that just seems loony to me. Questioning your self? You must have some type of divine understanding in that you can go outside of faith, and try and explain this logically. Kudos to you sir..
Do I expect any sensible person to believe this logic? No, I expect a sensible person to read and acknowledge the fact that I said THE ONENESS DOCTRINE believes etc. The PENTECOSTALS are the main promoters (when it comes to christian sects) of the ONENESS DOCTRINE. Where do you get the idea that I believe that? LMAO!

I don't know, probably because we have millions of Christians world wide praying in the name of Jesus Christ every single day..
But how does that have an impact on you and your personal relationship with God?
 
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#59
n9newunsixx5150 said:
On what basis do you discriminate one part of the Bible from another? If John speaks faulty then how do know Jesus doesn't? Or, how do you know that those were really even Jesus words? Jesus didn't write down the Bible. Therefore you should either accept that the Bible is authoritive, or you should reject it.
On what basis do you feel you have the right to tell me how to place my faith/belief? We can go on and on about the validity of the New Testament but what's the point? The Identity of the authors are cause for question, and John is particularly suspect; writing his gospel a little bit later than the three synoptic gospels, differing greatly in his descriptions of Jesus, and over all most scholars simply believe the Gospel of John to be inauthentic.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jesus_Seminar

This is the very gospel that Christians always use to try and prove Jesus' "oneness" with God.. I tend to try and rely on the OT, and the original Injil(teachings of Jesus).. If Jesus didn't say any of these things, then we have a problem and some very screwed misinterpretations. But I'm not going to google/wikipedia anything up anymore, and I know ya'll don't want to hear my opinions so I'll leave it at that. Chuch..
 

Hemp

Sicc OG
Sep 5, 2005
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#60
n9newunsixx5150 said:
On what basis do you discriminate one part of the Bible from another? If John speaks faulty then how do know Jesus doesn't? Or, how do you know that those were really even Jesus words? Jesus didn't write down the Bible. Therefore you should either accept that the Bible is authoritive, or you should reject it.

who said john speaks faulty?
theres just a difference between john saying his opinion, or john saying what jesus said.
if i was a christian or a follower of christ id follow christ and not john.