^^^
Can you provide any evidence that could prove otherwise?
fyi, I don't really care, however if you compare the style of languages and verbage or vernacular in the King James Version of the Bible to Macbeth (which was supposedly written by Shakespear for King James) or any other piece of his work, there a similarities.
They existed around the same time. The King James Version was published in 1611, the same year Shakespear began writing 'The Tempest' (his last play). He lived from 1564 to 1616.
King James was educated enough to posibily be capable of publishing such a work as well.
As I said, I don't really care as it makes no difference to me, but it's an option that shouldn't be ruled out...