On another message board the topic completely strayed into a debate as to whether or not the sense of taste can be proven to someone who lacks the sense of taste.
The other party came up with a hypothetical experiment. They said we can take a group of people and blindfold them. Then we can have them try different foods. The man without taste will know what foods are what and will see how the blindfolded people all choose the food they are asked to choose. (this is assuming, of course, that every type of food is of the same consistency, temperature, etc.) This would be a plausible argument, but...
*Taste is dependent on smell*. Therefore, how do we determine whether it is by taste or by smell that the people know which is the correct food? Obviously, we can't inhibit the sense of smell, for that would inhibit taste. Nor, without proving the existence of taste, first of all, can we prove that a relationship exists between smell and taste.
So is there any other way to irrefutably prove the sense of taste?
The other party came up with a hypothetical experiment. They said we can take a group of people and blindfold them. Then we can have them try different foods. The man without taste will know what foods are what and will see how the blindfolded people all choose the food they are asked to choose. (this is assuming, of course, that every type of food is of the same consistency, temperature, etc.) This would be a plausible argument, but...
*Taste is dependent on smell*. Therefore, how do we determine whether it is by taste or by smell that the people know which is the correct food? Obviously, we can't inhibit the sense of smell, for that would inhibit taste. Nor, without proving the existence of taste, first of all, can we prove that a relationship exists between smell and taste.
So is there any other way to irrefutably prove the sense of taste?