http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=XS3mhjt7TrY
Naturally, Bayer has fiercely denied these claims, claiming that the drug was infected without there knowledge; however, inside documents prove them to have been trying to work with the FDA to cover up the issue.
What happened: Bayer came out with a drug for hemophiliacs. However, it was quickly discovered that the drug (which was made primarily of human blood products) was tainted with the AIDS virus. The FDA wouldn't allow Bayer toi sell the drug domestically, so they sold it overseas, specifically in France, Spain, and Japan among other places. So thousands of innocent hemophiliacs and their families have been infected with the virus.
The allegation: It is alleged that Bayer knew about the fact that the drug was tainted and told the FDA to keep things under wraps while they made a profit off of a drug that infected its patients. If these allegations are true, then both Bayer and the FDA are at fault for this catastrophe.
The defense: Bayer claims that it did not know about the drugs being contaminated or the repercussions of selling the tainted drug at the time (this was before alot was known about AIDS).
What do you think? Does corporate greed justify ignorance?
Naturally, Bayer has fiercely denied these claims, claiming that the drug was infected without there knowledge; however, inside documents prove them to have been trying to work with the FDA to cover up the issue.
What happened: Bayer came out with a drug for hemophiliacs. However, it was quickly discovered that the drug (which was made primarily of human blood products) was tainted with the AIDS virus. The FDA wouldn't allow Bayer toi sell the drug domestically, so they sold it overseas, specifically in France, Spain, and Japan among other places. So thousands of innocent hemophiliacs and their families have been infected with the virus.
The allegation: It is alleged that Bayer knew about the fact that the drug was tainted and told the FDA to keep things under wraps while they made a profit off of a drug that infected its patients. If these allegations are true, then both Bayer and the FDA are at fault for this catastrophe.
The defense: Bayer claims that it did not know about the drugs being contaminated or the repercussions of selling the tainted drug at the time (this was before alot was known about AIDS).
What do you think? Does corporate greed justify ignorance?
